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  1. factorial - Why does 0! = 1? - Mathematics Stack Exchange

    The product of 0 and anything is $0$, and seems like it would be reasonable to assume that $0! = 0$. I'm perplexed as to why I have to account for this condition in my factorial function (Trying to learn …

  2. I have learned that 1/0 is infinity, why isn't it minus infinity?

    @Swivel But 0 does equal -0. Even under IEEE-754. The only reason IEEE-754 makes a distinction between +0 and -0 at all is because of underflow, and for +/- ∞, overflow. The intention is if you have …

  3. Is $0$ a natural number? - Mathematics Stack Exchange

    Inclusion of $0$ in the natural numbers is a definition for them that first occurred in the 19th century. The Peano Axioms for natural numbers take $0$ to be one though, so if you are working with these …

  4. What is $0^ {i}$? - Mathematics Stack Exchange

    Jan 12, 2015 · In the context of natural numbers and finite combinatorics it is generally safe to adopt a convention that $0^0=1$. Extending this to a complex arithmetic context is fraught with risks, as is …

  5. algebra precalculus - Zero to the zero power – is $0^0=1 ...

    @Arturo: I heartily disagree with your first sentence. Here's why: There's the binomial theorem (which you find too weak), and there's power series and polynomials (see also Gadi's answer). For all this, …

  6. Justifying why 0/0 is indeterminate and 1/0 is undefined

    Oct 28, 2019 · In the context of limits, $0/0$ is an indeterminate form (limit could be anything) while $1/0$ is not (limit either doesn't exist or is $\pm\infty$). This is a pretty reasonable way to think about …

  7. Is $0^\infty$ indeterminate? - Mathematics Stack Exchange

    Oct 9, 2013 · Is a constant raised to the power of infinity indeterminate? I am just curious. Say, for instance, is $0^\\infty$ indeterminate? Or is it only 1 raised to the infinity that is?

  8. Why is $\infty\times 0$ indeterminate? - Mathematics Stack Exchange

    Your title says something else than "infinity times zero". It says "infinity to the zeroth power". It is also an indefinite form because $$\infty^0 = \exp (0\log \infty) $$ but $\log\infty=\infty$, so the argument of …

  9. What is the integral of 0? - Mathematics Stack Exchange

    Feb 4, 2018 · So there is a sense in which the only "really geometrically meaningful" integral of $0$ is $0$ itself. But your friend is still wrong, since the term "integral" in this context means antiderivative …

  10. Seeking elegant proof why 0 divided by 0 does not equal 1

    Nov 17, 2014 · I began by assuming that $\dfrac00$ does equal $1$ and then was eventually able to deduce that, based upon my assumption (which as we know was false) $0=1$. As this is clearly false …